Get The Most Updated ISTQB-CTFL Dumps To Foundation Level Certification [Q29-Q46]

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Get The Most Updated ISTQB-CTFL Dumps To Foundation Level Certification [Q29-Q46]

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Get The Most Updated ISTQB-CTFL Dumps To Foundation Level Certification

ISTQB Certified ISTQB-CTFL Dumps Questions Valid ISTQB-CTFL Materials

Q29. Which of the following is a correct reason to apply test automation?

When a new test automation tool is launched

When there are a lot of repetitive testing tasks

When it is easy to automate

When it is cheap to buy test automation tools

A correct reason to apply test automation is when there are a lot of repetitive testing tasks. Test automation is the use of software tools or scripts to perform or support testing activities, such as test case execution, test result comparison, test data generation, etc. Test automation can be beneficial when there are a lot of repetitive testing tasks that need to be performed frequently or consistently, such as regression testing, performance testing, load testing, etc. Test automation can help to save time and effort, increase reliability and accuracy, and improve coverage and efficiency of testing. The other options are not correct reasons to apply test automation. When a new test automation tool is launched is not a reason to apply test automation, but rather a factor for choosing a test automation tool. When it is easy to automate is not a reason to apply test automation, but rather a factor for evaluating the feasibility of test automation. When it is cheap to buy test automation tools is not a reason to apply test automation, but rather a factor for estimating the cost and benefit of test automation. Verified References: A Study Guide to the ISTQB® Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus – Springer, page 10.

Q30. To be able to define testable acceptance criteria, specific topics need to be addressed. In the table below are the topics matched to an incorrect description. Match the topics (the left column) with the correct description (the right column) Topic Description A: Functional behaviour A: How the system performs the specific behaviour.
8: Quality characteristics B: A sequence of actions between an external actor and the system, to accomplish a specific goal or business task.
C: Scenarios C: The externally observable behaviour with user actions as input operating under certain configurations.
D: Business rules D; Description of the connections between the system to be developed and the outside world.
E: External interfaces E: Activities that can only be performed in the system under certain conditions defined by outside procedures and constraints.

A to C, B to A, C to B. D to E and E to D

A to E, B to A, C to B, D to C and E to D

A to C, B to A, C to B, D to D and E to E

A TO A, B TO B, CTOB, DTO E AND E TO D

The correct matching of the topics with their descriptions is as follows:
Functional behaviour: The externally observable behaviour with user actions as input operating under certain configurations (A to C).
Quality characteristics: How the system performs the specific behaviour (B to A).
Scenarios: A sequence of actions between an external actor and the system, to accomplish a specific goal or business task (C to B).
Business rules: Activities that can only be performed in the system under certain conditions defined by outside procedures and constraints (D to E).
External interfaces: Description of the connections between the system to be developed and the outside world (E to D).

Q31. A system has valid input numbers ranging between 1000 and 99999 (both inclusive). Which of the following inputs are a result of designing tests for all valid equivalence classes and their boundaries?

999.1000.23232.99999.100000

999.1000.50000.100000.100001

999.100000

1000,50000,99999

A correct list of boundary values for the P input should include the minimum and maximum values of the valid range (15 and 350), as well as the values just below and above the boundaries (14 and 351). Boundary value analysis is a test design technique that involves testing the values at or near the boundaries of an input domain or output range, as these values are more likely to cause errors than values in the middle. Option B satisfies this condition, as it has all four boundary values (14, 15, 350, 351). Option A has two values from the same equivalence class (1000 and 99999), option C has two values outside the range (999 and 100000), and option D has no boundary values at all. Verified Reference: A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus – Springer, page 34.

Q32. A Test Manager conducts risk assessment for a project. One of the identified risks is: The sub-contractor may fail to meet his commitment”. If this risk materializes. it will lead to delay in completion of testing required for the current cycle.
Which of the following sentences correctly describes the risk?

It is a product risk since any risk associated with development timeline is a product risk.

It is no longer a risk for the Test Manager since an independent party (the sub-contractor) is now managing it

It is a object risk since successful completion of the object depends on successful and timely completion of the tests

It is a product risk since default on part of the sub-contractor may lead to delay in release of the product

* A product risk is a risk that affects the quality or timeliness of the software product being developed or tested1. Product risks are related to the requirements, design, implementation, verification, and maintenance of the software product2.
* The risk of the sub-contractor failing to meet his commitment is a product risk, as it could cause a delay in the completion of the testing required for the current cycle, which in turn could affect the release date of the product. The release date is an important aspect of the product quality, as it reflects the customer satisfaction and the market competitiveness of the product3.
* The other options are not correct because:
* A. It is not true that any risk associated with development timeline is a product risk. Some risks could be project risks, which are risks that affect the management or control of the software project, such as budget, resources, schedule, or communication1. For example, a risk of losing a key project stakeholder is a project risk, not a product risk.
* B. It is not true that the risk is no longer a risk for the Test Manager since an independent party is managing it. The Test Manager is still responsible for ensuring that the testing activities are completed according to the test plan and the quality objectives4. The Test Manager should monitor and control the sub-contractor’s performance and communicate with him regularly to identify and mitigate any potential issues or deviations5.
* C. It is not clear what is meant by “object” in this option, but it could be interpreted as the software system under test or the test object6. In any case, the risk is not an object risk, as it does not affect the successful completion of the object, but rather the successful completion of the testing of the object. An object risk could be a risk that affects the functionality, reliability, usability, efficiency, maintainability, or portability of the software system under test2. For example, a risk of the software system having a high complexity or a low testability is an object risk, not a product risk.
References =
* 1 ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 97
* 2 ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 98
* 3 ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 99
* 4 ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 100
* 5 ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 101
* 6 ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 102

Q33. Consider an estimation session in which a six-member Agile team (Memb1….. Memb6) uses the planning poker technique to estimate a user story (in story points). The team members will use a set of cards with the following values: 1,2, 3,5, 8,13,21. Below is the outcome of the first round of estimation for this session:

Which of the following answers BEST describes how the estimation session should proceed?

The final estimate of the user story in story points is determined by applying the three-point estimation technique with the following input values most optimistic estimate – 1, most likely estimate – 3, and most pessimistic estimate – 21

Further estimation rounds should be performed until all team members will pick the card having the same value: this value will represent the final estimate of the user story in story points.

The final estimate of the user story in story points is determined by calculating the average value between the most optimistic estimate of 21 story points (Memb4> and the most pessimistic estimate of
1 story point (Memb6)

Memb6 and Memb4 which have produced the most pessimistic and the most optimistic estimates respectively, should explain the reasons of their choices to stimulate a discussion between all members before proceeding to another estimation round

In Agile teams using the planning poker technique for estimating user stories, it is common practice to have further discussions and rounds of estimation if there is a significant discrepancy in the initial estimates. This helps in reaching a consensus and ensures that all team members understand the complexity and requirements of the user story. According to the ISTQB CTFL syllabus, planning poker involves discussions to clarify differences in estimates, especially when there is a wide range of values selected. By having Memb6 and Memb4, who provided the most pessimistic and optimistic estimates, explain their reasoning, it fosters a deeper understanding and encourages the team to converge towards a more accurate and agreed-upon estimate.
References: ISTQB CTFL Syllabus, Section on Agile methodologies and estimation techniques.

Q34. Use Scenario 1 “Happy Tomatoes” (from the previous question).
Using the Boundary Value Analysis (BVA) technique (in its two-point variant), identify the set of input values that provides the HIGHEST coverage.

{7,8,21,22,29,30}

{7,8,22,23,29,30}

{6,7,8,21,22,29,31}

{6,7,21,22,29,30}

Comprehensive and Detailed In-Depth Explanation:
Boundary Value Analysis (BVA) focuses on test cases at the edges of partitions because defects often occur at boundaries. The temperature ranges are:
* #7 (Too cold # W)
* [8-21] (Standstill # X)
* [22-29] (Ideal # Y)
* #30 (Too hot # Z)
A two-point BVA means testing both the lower and upper boundary values of each partition.
The correct selection {7,8,21,22,29,30} includes:
* 7 # Boundary of Too Cold (W)
* 8 # Lower boundary of Standstill (X)
* 21 # Upper boundary of Standstill (X)
* 22 # Lower boundary of Ideal (Y)
* 29 # Upper boundary of Ideal (Y)
* 30 # Lower boundary of Too Hot (Z)
This ensures maximum boundary coverage.
Reference: ISTQB CTFL v4.0 Syllabus, Section 4.2.2 – Boundary Value Analysis

Q35. You are an experienced tester on a project with incomplete requirements and under pressure to deploy.
What type of testing should you do?

Decision-based testing.

Checklist-based testing.

Error guessing.

Exploratory testing.

When working on a project with incomplete requirements and under pressure to deploy, exploratory testing is particularly suitable. This type of testing allows testers to use their expertise and intuition to explore the system’s functionality and identify defects without needing detailed specifications. Exploratory testing is flexible and can quickly adapt to changes and gaps in the requirements.

Q36. Which of the following is the main difference between quality assurance (QA) and quality control <QC)?

A is the responsibility of everyone on a project, while QC is the responsibility of a dedicated team.

A is a process-oriented approach, while QC is a product-oriented approach.

A is focused on implementation, while QC is focused on improvement.

A is preventive, while QC is corrective.

Q37. Given the following state model of sales order software:
* PLACED -> IN PRODUCTION
* IN PRODUCTION -> CANCELLED
* IN PRODUCTION -> SHIPPED
* SHIPPED -> INVOICED
* INVOICED -> CANCELLED
* CANCELLED -> PLACED
Which of the following sequences of tran-sitions provides the highest level of tran-sition coverage for the model (assuming you can start in any state)?

IN PRODUCTION -> CANCELLED -> PLACED -> IN PRODUCTION -> CANCELLED -> PLACED

IN PRODUCTION -> SHIPPED -> INVOICED -> CANCELLED -> PLACED -> IN PRODUCTION

PLACED -> IN PRODUCTION -> SHIPPED -> CANCELLED -> PLACED

PLACED -> CANCELLED -> PLACED -> CANCELLED -> PLACED -> IN PRODUCTION -> CANCELLED

To achieve the highest level of transition coverage, one must consider all the possible transitions between the states in the given state model of the sales order software. The transitions in the sequence provided in Option B – “IN PRODUCTION -> SHIPPED -> INVOICED -> CANCELLED -> PLACED -> IN PRODUCTION” cover all the states and transitions effectively. This covers the transitions from IN PRODUCTION to SHIPPED, SHIPPED to INVOICED, INVOICED to CANCELLED, CANCELLED to PLACED, and PLACED to IN PRODUCTION, thereby maximizing the transition coverage.
References:
ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Section 4.3.5.

Q38. Which ONE of the following options is NOT a test objective?

Verifying whether specified requirements have been fulfilled

Triggering failures and finding defects

Finding errors

Validating whether the test object is complete and works as expected by the stakeholders

Comprehensive and Detailed In-Depth Explanation:
The primary objectives of testing, as outlined in the ISTQB CTFL v4.0 syllabus, include verifying whether specified requirements are met (A), detecting failures and defects (B), and validating that the test object functions as expected (D). However, “finding errors” (C) is not a direct objective. Errors result from human mistakes, but testing primarily identifies defects, which are flaws in the system that cause failures. Testing aims to reveal defects rather than directly identify errors in the code.
Reference: ISTQB CTFL v4.0 Syllabus, Section 1.1.1 – Test Objectives

Q39. What is ‘Component Testing’?

Integration Testing

Functional testing

Experience-based testing

A test level

Component testing is a test level. A test level is a group of test activities that are organized and managed together based on some common characteristics or objectives. A test level can bedefined based on various factors, such as the scope and target of testing, the phase and model of development, the stakeholders and roles involved in testing, etc. Component testing (also known as unit testing or module testing) is a test level that focuses on verifying the functionality and quality of individual software components (such as modules, classes, functions, methods, etc.). Component testing can be performed by developers or testers using various techniques and tools depending on the type and complexity of the components. The other options are not test levels. Integration testing is another test level that focuses on verifying the functionality and quality of groups of software components that interact with each other or with external systems. Functional testing is a type of black-box dynamic testing that verifies that the system under test performs its intended functions according to its requirements or specifications. Experience-based testing is a category of test design techniques that rely on the tester’s knowledge and intuition to derive and select test cases based on their experience with similar systems, technologies, domains, risks, etc. Verified References: A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus – Springer, page 19.

Q40. Which ONE of the following elements is TYPICALLYNOTpart of atest progress report?

Obstacles and their workarounds

A detailed assessment of product quality

Test metrics to show the current status of the test process

New or changed risks

Comprehensive and Detailed In-Depth Explanation:Atest progress reportprovides an overview of testing activities, metrics, and identified risks. It focuses on tracking testing progress rather thanevaluating overall product quality (B), which is typically included in atest summary reportafter testing is completed.
* (A) is correctbecause obstacles (challenges) are reported to ensure test execution stays on track.
* (C) is correctas test metrics help stakeholders track execution progress.
* (D) is correctbecause new or changed risks impact test focus and priorities.
A test progress reporttracks execution and informs stakeholders about ongoing testing activities.

Q41. Which of the following statements is TRUE’?

Unlike functional testing, non-fundional testing can only be applied to conventional systems, not artificial intelligence-based system.

Functional testing focuses on what the system is supposed to do, while white-box testing focuses on how well the system does what it is supposed to do

Functional testing can be applied to all test levels, while non-functional testing can be applied only to system and acceptance test levels.

Black-box test techniques and experience-based test techniques may be applicable to both functional testing and non-functional testing

Statement D is correct. According to the ISTQB CTFL syllabus, both black-box test techniques (which focus on testing without internal knowledge of the application) and experience-based test techniques (which rely on testers’ experience and intuition) can be applied to both functional and non-functional testing. Functional testing is concerned with what the system does, whereas non-functional testing looks at how the system performs under certain conditions. These techniques are versatile and can be employed to address both these aspects.

Q42. Given the following priorities and dependencies for these test cases:

Which of the following test execution schedules BEST takes into account the priorities and technical and logical dependencies?

TC1 – TC3 – TC2 – TC4 – TC6 – TC5

TC3 – TC4 – TC2 – TC6 – TC1 – TC5

TC1 – TC3 – TC2 – TC4 – TC5 – TC6

TC2 – TC4 – TC1 – TC3 – TC5 – TC6

When scheduling test cases, priorities and dependencies must be considered. The best execution order will respect both the logical dependencies and the priorities assigned to each test case.
Given the options, the correct order considering the priorities and dependencies is:
TC1 (Priority 1)
**TC (ISTQB not-for-profit association)ity 2, dependent on TC1)
TC2 (Priority 3, dependent on TC1)
TC4 (Priority 4)
TC5 (Priority 5)
TC6 (Priority 6, dependent on TC4)
According to the ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL) v4.0 syllabus, understanding dependencies and scheduling tests accordingly is crucial for effective test execution【6 source】.
Reference:
Certified Tester Foundation Level v4.0
ISTQB Foundation Level Syllabus 4.0 (2023)

Q43. Whichofthe following options cover the test types performed during typical system testing phase:
I. Usability
II Requirements based scenarios
III Testing parts of the code in isolation
IV Correct order of parameters in API calls

I, Ill

I. II

II. IV

III. IV

System testing is a level of testing performed to evaluate the behavior and quality of a whole software product or system. System testing can include various types of testing, such as:
* I) Usability testing: A type of testing that evaluates how easy, efficient and satisfying it is to use the software product or system from the user’s perspective.
* II) Requirements based scenarios testing: A type of testing that verifies that the software product or system meets its specified requirements or user stories by executing realistic scenarios or workflows.
System testing does not include the following types of testing, as they are more suitable for lower levels of testing, such as unit testing or integration testing:
* III) Testing parts of the code in isolation: A type of testing that verifies the functionality and quality of individual software components or units by isolating them from other components or units.
* IV) Correct order of parameters in API calls: A type of testing that verifies the functionality and quality of software components or units that communicate with each other through application programming interfaces (APIs) by checking the correct order and format of parameters in API calls. Verified References: [A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus – Springer], Chapter 2, page 20-21; Chapter 4, page 34-35.

Q44. Which of the following statements about how different types of test tools support testers is true?

The support offered by a test data preparation tool is often leveraged by testers to run automated regression test suites

The support offered by a performance testing tool is often leveraged by testers to run load tests

The support offered by a bug prediction tool is often used by testers to track the bugs they found

The support offered by a continuous integration tool is often leveraged by testers to automatically generate test cases from a model

The support offered by a performance testing tool is often leveraged by testers to run load tests, which are tests that simulate a large number of concurrent users or transactions on the system under test, in order to measure its performance, reliability, and scalability. Performance testing tools can help testers to generate realistic workloads, monitor system behavior, collect and analyze performance metrics, and identify performance bottlenecks. The other statements are false, because:
* A test data preparation tool is a tool that helps testers to create, manage, and manipulate test data, which are the inputs and outputs of test cases. Test data preparation tools are not directly related to running automated regression test suites, which are test suites that verify that the system still works as expected after changes or modifications. Regression test suites are usually executed by test execution tools, which are tools that can automatically run test cases and compare actual results with expected results.
* A bug prediction tool is a tool that uses machine learning or statistical techniques to predict the likelihood of defects in a software system, based on various factors such as code complexity, code churn, code coverage, code smells, etc. Bug prediction tools are not used by testers to track the bugs they found, which are the actual defects that have been detected and reported during testing. Bugs are usually tracked by defect management tools, which are tools that help testers to record, monitor, analyze, and resolve defects.
* A continuous integration tool is a tool that enables the integration of code changes from multiple developers into a shared repository, and the execution of automated builds and tests, in order to ensure the quality and consistency of the software system. Continuous integration tools are not used by testers to automatically generate test cases from a model, which are test cases that are derived from a representation of the system under test, such as a state diagram, a decision table, a use case, etc. Test cases can be automatically generated by test design tools, which are tools that support the implementation and maintenance of test cases, based on test design specifications or test models.
References: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL) v4.0 sources and documents:
* ISTQB® Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Chapter 3.4.1, Types of Test Tools
* ISTQB® Glossary of Testing Terms v4.0, Performance Testing Tool, Test Data Preparation Tool, Bug Prediction Tool, Continuous Integration Tool, Test Execution Tool, Defect Management Tool, Test Design Tool

Q45. During which review process activity are the exit criteria for an inspection defined?

Review Initiation

Planning

Communication and analysis

Fixing and reporting

Q46. Which ONE of the following elements is TYPICALLY NOT part of a test progress report?

Obstacles and their workarounds

A detailed assessment of product quality

Test metrics to show the current status of the test process

New or changed risks

Comprehensive and Detailed In-Depth Explanation:
A test progress report provides an overview of testing activities, metrics, and identified risks. It focuses on tracking testing progress rather than evaluating overall product quality (B), which is typically included in a test summary report after testing is completed.
* (A) is correct because obstacles (challenges) are reported to ensure test execution stays on track.
* (C) is correct as test metrics help stakeholders track execution progress.
* (D) is correct because new or changed risks impact test focus and priorities.
A test progress report tracks execution and informs stakeholders about ongoing testing activities.
Reference: ISTQB CTFL v4.0 Syllabus, Section 5.3 – Test Monitoring and Control

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