[Q43-Q67] Pass CTPRP Exam in First Attempt Guaranteed 100% Cover Real Exam Questions [Mar-2025]

admin • March 8, 2025

[Q43-Q67] Pass CTPRP Exam in First Attempt Guaranteed 100% Cover Real Exam Questions [Mar-2025]

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Pass CTPRP Exam in First Attempt Guaranteed 100% Cover Real Exam Questions [Mar-2025]

Valid CTPRP test answers & Shared Assessments CTPRP exam pdf

Q43. When conducting an assessment of a third party’s physical security controls, which of the following represents the innermost layer in a ‘Defense in Depth’ model?

Public internal

Restricted entry

Private internal

Public external

Q44. When selecting an external continuous monitoring solution, what is a crucial component for assessing the financial health of a vendor?

Reports that identify changes in vendor financial viability

General news updates about the vendor’s industry

Quarterly earnings forecasts published by financial analysts

Media coverage and public perception analysis

Q45. If a company identifies significant financial risk with a third-party vendor, what is an appropriate initial action?

Negotiate lower prices to reflect the increased risk before continuing transactions.

Encourage the vendor to restructure their debt to improve financial stability.

Immediately cease all business activities with the vendor to prevent potential losses.

Conduct a more detailed financial audit of the vendor to assess long-term viability.

Q46. A software development company plans to release an update to their client management system. What should be their primary focus during the QA testing phase?

Checking the integration of the update with third-party applications

Ensuring all team members are trained on the new functionalities

Assessing the impact of the update on existing features

Ensuring the update does not introduce new vulnerabilities

Q47. Your company has been alerted that an IT vendor began utilizing a subcontractor located in a country restricted by company policy. What is the BEST approach to handle this situation?

Notify management to approve an exception and ensure that contract provisions require prior
“notification and evidence of subcontractor due diligence

inform the business unit and recommend that the company cease future work with the IT vendor due to company policy

Update the vender inventory with the mew location information in order to schedule a reassessment

Inform the business unit and ask the vendor to replace the subcontractor at their expense in “order to move the processing back to an approved country

Q48. Minimum risk assessment standards for third party due diligence should be:

Set by each business unit based on the number of vendors to be assessed

Defined in the vendor/service provider contract or statement of work

Established by the TPRM program based on the company’s risk tolerance and risk appetite

Identified by procurement and required for all vendors and suppliers

Q49. Which approach demonstrates GREATER maturity of physical security compliance?

Leveraging periodic reporting to schedule facility inspections based on reported events

Providing a checklist for self-assessment

Maintaining a standardized scheduled for confirming controls to defined standards

Conducting unannounced checks an an ac-hac basis

According to the Shared Assessments Certified Third Party Risk Professional (CTPRP) Study Guide, physical security compliance is the process of ensuring that the physical assets and personnel of an organization are protected from unauthorized access, theft, damage, or harm1. Physical security compliance can be achieved by implementing various measures, such as locks, alarms, cameras, guards, fences, badges, etc. However, these measures need to be regularly monitored, tested, and verified to ensure their effectiveness and alignment with the defined standards and policies2. Therefore, maintaining a standardized schedule for confirming controls to defined standards demonstrates a greater maturity of physical security compliance, as it indicates a proactive and consistent approach to assessing and improving the physical security posture of an organization3.
The other options do not reflect a high level of physical security compliance maturity, as they either rely on reactive or ad hoc methods, or lack sufficient verification and validation mechanisms. Leveraging periodic reporting to schedule facility inspections based on reported events may indicate a lack of preventive and predictive measures, as well as a dependency on external or internal incidents to trigger the inspections.
Providing a checklist for self-assessment may indicate a lack of independent and objective evaluation, as well as a potential for bias or error in the self-assessment process. Conducting unannounced checks on an ad hoc basis may indicate a lack of planning and coordination, as well as a potential for disruption or inconsistency in the checks.
References:
* 1: Shared Assessments Certified Third Party Risk Professional (CTPRP) Study Guide, page 24
* 2: Physical Security: Planning, Measures & Examples + PDF – Avigilon
* 3: Security Maturity Models: Levels, Assessment, and Benefits
* [4]: Best Practices for Planning and Managing Physical Security Resources – CISA, page 10
* [5]: Self-Assessment vs. Independent Assessment: What’s the Difference? | Linford & Company LLP
* [6]: The Pros and Cons of Unannounced Audits | NQA

Q50. In a scenario where the average time to remediate risks increases, what might this indicate about the TPRM program?

A decline in the responsiveness or effectiveness of the TPRM program.

Higher resource efficiency and lower operational costs in managing risks.

Better alignment with industry standards and quicker adaptation.

An increase in the complexity or severity of identified risks.

Q51. What does “impact on revenue” measure in vendor risk assessment?

The vendor’s responsiveness to addressing service disruptions

The extent to which a vendor’s service disruption affects the business’s income, profitability, and market share

The frequency of the vendor’s service failures and their duration

The overall cost of the vendor’s services to the organization

Q52. Consider a company that uses multiple service providers for various functions. When conducting a criticality assessment, what should be the primary consideration for prioritizing which service provider to assess first?

The impact of the service provider on the organization’s ability to deliver core business functions

The duration of the contract with the service provider

The overall satisfaction of the organization with the service provider’s performance

The number of transactions processed by the service provider on a daily basis

Q53. A bank experiences a cyber attack that disrupts its online services for several hours. How soon must it notify its primary federal regulator?

Within 72 hours of resolving the security issue.

Within one week of the incident being fully documented.

Within 48 hours of receiving the first complaint from customers.

As soon as possible, but no later than 36 hours after the incident.

Q54. Physical access procedures and activity logs should require all of the following EXCEPT:

Require multiple access controls for server rooms and data centers

Require physical access logs to be retained indefinitely for audit purposes

Record successful and unsuccessful attempts including investigation of unsuccessful access attempts

Include a process to trigger review of the logs after security events

Q55. Which regulatory standard requires the use of multi-factor authentication to protect data?

Federal Information Security Management Act (FISMA)

Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA)

Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard (PCI DSS)

National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST) SP 800-63

Q56. Which statement is FALSE regarding the different types of contracts and agreements between outsourcers and service providers?

Contract addendums are not sufficient for addressing third party risk obligations as each requirement must be outlined in the Master Services Agreement (MSA)

Evergreen contracts are automatically renewed for each party after the maturity period, unless terminated under existing contract provisions

Requests for Proposals (RFPs) for outsourced services should include mandatory requirements based on an organization’s TPRM program policies, standards and procedures

Statements of Work (SOWs) define operational requirements and obligations for each party

Q57. A manager discovers that an employee is engaging in behavior that contradicts the company’s code of conduct. What should be the initial action according to a well-structured disciplinary process?

Review the policies related to the behavior to confirm any violations before proceeding.

Advise the employee to cease the behavior privately and avoid documenting the incident.

Informally warning the employee and monitoring their behavior without further actions.

Organize a meeting with all employees to discuss the general behavior expected.

Q58. Which cloud deployment model is primarily focused on the application layer?

Infrastructure as a Service

Software as a Service

Function a3 a Service

Platform as a Service

Q59. In the context of disaster recovery, which action is essential immediately after a major incident?

Restoring all services and operations at once

Communicating with stakeholders about the breach

Implementing measures to secure data and systems

Revising security protocols and policies immediately

Q60. In controls evaluation, assessing the _________ provided by a third party, such as policies and certifications, is crucial to ensure they meet the organizational standards.

Evidence

Attestations

Compliance

Procedures

Q61. In the Defense in Depth approach, the ‘Private internal’ layer primarily utilizes ________ to secure sensitive data.

continuous monitoring and behavioral analytics

data loss prevention methods

firewall and intrusion detection systems

encryption and access controls

Q62. Which of the following methods of validating pre-employment screening attributes is appropriate due to limitations of international or state regulation?

Reviewing evidence of web search of social media sites

Providing and sampling complete personnel files to demonstrate unique screening results

Requiring evidence of drug testing

Requesting evidence of the performance of pre-employment screening when permitted by law

Q63. What is essential to verify when assessing a vendor with network access to ensure security?

That their services are the cheapest available to reduce costs.

That they use the most advanced technology, regardless of compatibility.

That their security controls meet the organization’s standards.

That the vendor’s staff are trained in the organization’s internal processes.

Q64. A risk register typically includes the risk’s _______, impact, and likelihood.

Timing

Cost

Description

Source

Q65. Which statement is FALSE when describing the differences between security vulnerabilities and security defects?

A security defect is a security flaw identified in an application due to poor coding practices

Security defects should be treated as exploitable vulnerabilities

Security vulnerabilities and security defects are synonymous

A security defect can become a security vulnerability if undetected after migration into production

Security vulnerabilities and security defects are not synonymous, but rather different concepts that relate to the security of software products or services. A security vulnerability is a weakness or flaw in the software that can be exploited by an attacker to compromise the confidentiality, integrity, or availability of the system or data12. A security defect is a mistake or error in the software code that causes the software to behave in an unexpected or incorrect way34. A security defect may or may not lead to a security vulnerability, depending on the context and impact of the defect. For example, a security defect that causes a buffer overflow may result in a security vulnerability that allows an attacker to execute arbitrary code on the system. However, a security defect that causes a spelling error in the user interface may not pose a security risk at all.
Security vulnerabilities and security defects have different causes, consequences, and solutions. Security vulnerabilities are often caused by design flaws, logic errors, or insufficient security controls in the software12. Security defects are often caused by poor coding practices, lack of testing, or human mistakes in the software development process34. Security vulnerabilities can have severe consequences for the software users, providers, and stakeholders, such as data breaches, identity theft, fraud, or sabotage12. Security defects can have various consequences for the software functionality, performance, or usability, such as crashes, glitches, or bugs34. Security vulnerabilities require proactive and reactive measures to prevent, detect, and mitigate the potential attacks, such as security testing, patching, monitoring, and incident response12. Security defects require corrective and preventive measures to identify, resolve, and avoid the errors, such as code review, debugging, refactoring, and quality assurance34.
Therefore, the statement that security vulnerabilities and security defects are synonymous is FALSE. They are distinct but related aspects of software security that require different approaches and techniques to address them. References: 1: What is a Software Vulnerability? | Veracode 2: Software Security: differences between vulnerabilities and Defects 3: What is a Software Defect? – Definition from Techopedia 4: Are vulnerabilities discovered and resolved like other defects? – Springer

Q66. In a scenario where a critical software provider’s system crashes, causing substantial operational delays, what aspect of the impact should be analyzed first?

The vendor’s compliance with industry standards post-disruption

The long-term repercussions on the organization’s strategic plans

The immediate effect on the organization’s ability to perform essential functions

The impact on the organization’s market reputation and customer perception

Q67. In application security design, _________ is critical for managing user permissions and access to resources.

identity and access management

error handling protocols

encryption techniques

logging mechanisms