[Mar 12, 2023] Free EC-COUNCIL 312-38 Exam Questions and Answer

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Understanding functional and technical aspects of Certified Network Defender Business Principles and Practices

The following will be discussed in ECCOUNCIL EC 312-38 exam dumps:

• Discuss security guidelines to mitigate risk associated with enterprise mobile usage policies
• Discuss Security Guidelines, recommendations and best practices for Dockers
• Discuss Security Guidelines, recommendations and best practices for Containers
• Understand IoT Devices, their need, and Application Areas
• Discuss Security guidelines and tools for Android devices
• Discuss the implementation of Encryption of “Data at transit” between database server and web server
• Discuss IoT Security Tools and Best Practices
• Understand Data Security and its Importance
• Discuss the implementation of data access controls
• Understand Window OS and Security Concerns
• Discuss the implementation of encryption of “Data at rest”
• Discuss and implement general security guidelines and best practices on Mobile platforms
• Discuss the security in IoT-enabled Environments
• Discuss Windows Patch Management
• Discuss Windows security baseline configurations
• Understand IoT Ecosystem and Communication models
• Discuss Windows Active Directory Security Best Practices
• Discuss Security Measures for IoT-enabled Environments
• Discuss Windows User Account and Password Management
• Discuss Various Windows Security Features
• Discus Network Virtualization (NV) Security
• Discuss Security guidelines and tools for iOS devices
• Discuss Windows OS Security Hardening Techniques
• Discuss Security Guidelines, recommendations and best practices for Kubernetes
• Discuss Windows Network Services and Protocol Security
• Discuss the implementation of Encryption of “Data at transit” between browser and web server
• Discuss Software-Defined Network (SDN) Security

QUESTION 15
Peter, a malicious hacker, obtains e-mail addresses by harvesting them from postings, blogs, DNS listings, and Web pages. He then sends a large number of unsolicited commercial e-mail (UCE) messages to these addresses. Which of the following e-mail crimes is Peter committing?

 E-mail spam

 E-mail storm

 E-mail bombing

 E-mail spoofing

Peter is performing spamming activity. Spam is a term that refers to the unsolicited e-mails sent to a large number of e-mail users. The number of such e-mails is increasing day by day, as most companies now prefer to use e-mails for promoting their products. Because of these unsolicited e-mails, legitimate e-mails take a much longer time to deliver to their destination. The attachments sent through spam may also contain viruses. However, spam can be stopped by implementing spam filters on servers and e-mail clients. Answer option C is incorrect. Mail bombing is an attack that is used to overwhelm mail servers and clients by sending a large number of unwanted e-mails. The aim of this type of attack is to completely fill the recipient’s hard disk with immense, useless files, causing at best irritation, and at worst total computer failure. E-mail filtering and properly configuring email relay functionality on mail servers can be helpful for protection against this type of attack. Answer option B is incorrect. An e-mail storm is a sudden spike of Reply All messages on an e-mail distribution list, usually caused by a controversial or misdirected message. Such storms start when multiple members of the distribution list reply to the entire list at the same time in response to an instigating message. Other members soon respond, usually adding vitriol to the discussion, asking to be removed from the list, or pleading for the cessation of messages. If enough members reply to these unwanted messages, this triggers a chain reaction of e-mail messages. The sheer load of traffic generated by these storms can render the e-mail servers carrying them inoperative, similar to a DDoS attack. Some e-mail viruses also have the capacity to create e-mail storms, by sending copies of themselves to an infected user’s contacts, including distribution lists, infecting the contacts in turn. Answer option D is incorrect. E-mail spoofing is a term used to describe e-mail activity in which the sender address and other parts of the e-mail header are altered to appear as though the e-mail originated from a different source. E-mail spoofing is a technique commonly used for spam e-mail and phishing to hide the origin of an e-mail message. By changing certain properties of the e-mail, such as the From, Return-Path, and Reply-To fields (which can be found in the message header), ill-intentioned users can make the e-mail appear to be from someone other than the actual sender. The result is that, although the e-mail appears to come from the address indicated in the From field, it actually comes from another source.

QUESTION 16
Which of the following types of coaxial cable is used for cable TV and cable modems?

 RG-62

 RG-59

 RG-58

 RG-8

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
RG-59 type of coaxial cable is used for cable TV and cable modems.
Answer option D is incorrect. RG-8 coaxial cable is primarily used as a backbone in an Ethernet LAN environment and often connects one wiring closet to another. It is also known as 10Base5 or ThickNet.
Answer option A is incorrect. RG-62 coaxial cable is used for ARCNET and automotive radio antennas.
Answer option C is incorrect. RG-58 coaxial cable is used for Ethernet networks. It uses baseband signaling and 50-Ohm terminator. It is also known as 10Base2 or ThinNet.

QUESTION 17
Which of the following IP class addresses are not allotted to hosts?Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

 Class A

 Class B

 Class D

 Class E

 Class C

Class addresses D and E are not allotted to hosts. Class D addresses are reserved for multicasting, and their address range can extend from 224 to 239. Class E addresses are reserved for experimental purposes. Their addresses range from 240 to 254. Answer option A is incorrect. Class A addresses are specified for large networks. It consists of up to 16,777,214 client devices (hosts), and their address range can extend from 1 to 126. Answer option B is incorrect. Class B addresses are specified for medium size networks. It consists of up to 65,534 client devices, and their address range can extend from 128 to 191. Answer option E is incorrect. Class C addresses are specified for small local area networks (LANs). It consists of up to 245 client devices, and their address range can extend from 192 to
223.

QUESTION 18
Which of the following attacks, the attacker cannot use the software, which is trying a number of key combinations in order to obtain your password?

 Buffer overflow

 Zero-day attack

 Smurf attack

 None

 Shock brutal force

Explanation

QUESTION 19
Which of the following protocols is used to exchange encrypted EDI messages via email?

 S/MIME

 MIME

 HTTP

 HTTPS

QUESTION 20
Which of the following is a 16-bit field that identifies the source port number of the application program in the host that is sending the segment?

 Sequence Number

 Header Length

 Acknowledgment Number

 Source Port Address

Source Port Address is a 16-bit field that identifies the source port number of the application
program in the host that is sending the segment.
Answer option C is incorrect. This is a 32-bit field that identifies the byte number that the sender of
the segment is expecting to receive from the receiver.
Answer option B is incorrect. This is a 4-bit field that defines the 4-byte words in the TCP header.
The header length can be between 20 and 60 bytes. Therefore, the value of this field can be
between 5 and 15.
Answer option A is incorrect. This is a 32-bit field that identifies the number assigned to the first
byte of data contained in the segment.

QUESTION 21
A network is setup using an IP address range of 0.0.0.0 to 127.255.255.255. The network has a default subnet mask of 255.0.0.0. What IP address class is the network range a part of?

 Class C

 Class A

 Class B

 Class D

QUESTION 22
Which of the following is a communication protocol multicasts messages and information of all the member IP multicast group?

 IGMP

 ICMP

 BGP

 None

 EGP

QUESTION 23
Which of the following protocols is used to share information between routers to transport IP Multicast packets among networks?

 RSVP

 DVMRP

 RPC

 LWAPP

The Distance Vector Multicast Routing Protocol (DVMRP) is used to share information between routers to transport IP Multicast packets among networks. It uses a reverse path-flooding technique and is used as the basis for the Internet’s multicast backbone (MBONE). In particular, DVMRP is notorious for poor network scaling, resulting from reflooding, particularly with versions that do not implement pruning. DVMRP’s flat unicast routing mechanism also affects its capability to scale. Answer option A is incorrect. The Resource Reservation Protocol (RSVP) is a Transport layer protocol designed to reserve resources across a network for an integrated services Internet. RSVP does not transport application data but is rather an Internet control protocol, like ICMP, IGMP, or routing protocols. RSVP provides receiver-initiated setup of resource reservations for multicast or unicast data flows with scaling and robustness. RSVP can be used by either hosts or routers to request or deliver specific levels of quality of service (QoS) for application data streams. RSVP defines how applications place reservations and how they can leave the reserved resources once the need for them has ended. RSVP operation will generally result in resources being reserved in each node along a path. Answer option C is incorrect. A remote procedure call (RPC) hides the details of the network by using the common procedure call mechanism familiar to every programmer. Like any ordinary procedure, RPC is also synchronous and parameters are passed to it. A process of the client calls a function on a remote server and remains suspended until it gets back the results. Answer option D is incorrect. LWAPP (Lightweight Access Point Protocol) is a protocol used to control multiple Wi-Fi wireless access points at once. This can reduce the amount of time spent on configuring, monitoring, or troubleshooting a large network. This also allows network administrators to closely analyze the network.

QUESTION 24
Which of the following is a presentation layer protocol?

 TCP

 RPC

 BGP

 LWAPP

QUESTION 25
Which of the following steps are required in an idle scan of a closed port?
Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose all that apply.

 The attacker sends a SYN/ACK to the zombie.

 The zombie’s IP ID increases by only 1.

 In response to the SYN, the target sends a RST.

 The zombie ignores the unsolicited RST, and the IP ID remains unchanged.

 The zombie’s IP ID increases by 2.

QUESTION 26
Which of the following plans is documented and organized for emergency response, backup operations, and recovery maintained by an activity as part of its security program that will ensure the availability of critical resources and facilitates the continuity of operations in an emergency situation?

 Contingency Plan

 Disaster Recovery Plan

 Business Continuity Plan

 Continuity Of Operations Plan

QUESTION 27
FILL BLANK
Fill in the blank with the appropriate term. ______________is a free open-source utility for network exploration
and security auditing that is used to discover computers and services on a computer network, thus creating a
“map” of the network.

Nmap
Explanation:
Nmap is a free open-source utility for network exploration and security auditing. It is used to discover
computers and services on a computer network, thus creating a “map” of the network. Just like many simple
port scanners, Nmap is capable of discovering passive services. In addition, Nmap may be able to determine
various details about the remote computers. These include operating system, device type, uptime, software
product used to run a service, exact version number of that product, presence of some firewall techniques and,
on a local area network, even vendor of the remote network card. Nmap runs on Linux, Microsoft Windows,
etc.

QUESTION 28
This is a Windows-based tool that is used for the detection of wireless LANs using the IEEE
802.11a, 802.11b, and 802.11g standards. The main features of these tools are as follows:
It displays the signal strength of a wireless network, MAC address, SSID, channel details, etc.
It is commonly used for the following purposes:
a.War driving
b.Detecting unauthorized access points
c.Detecting causes of interference on a WLAN
d.WEP ICV error tracking
e.Making Graphs and Alarms on 802.11 Data, including Signal Strength
This tool is known as __________.

 Kismet

 Absinthe

 THC-Scan

 NetStumbler

QUESTION 29
You work as a professional Computer Hacking Forensic Investigator for DataEnet Inc. You want to investigate e-mail information of an employee of the company. The suspected employee is using an online e-mail system such as Hotmail or Yahoo. Which of the following folders on the local computer will you review to accomplish the task? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

 History folder

 Temporary Internet Folder

 Cookies folder

 Download folder

Online e-mail systems such as Hotmail and Yahoo leave files containing e-mail message information on the local computer. These files are stored in a number of folders, which are as follows:
Cookies folder
Temp folder
History folder
Cache folder
Temporary Internet Folder Forensic tools can recover these folders for the respective e-mail clients. When folders are retrieved, e-mail files can be accessed. If the data is not readable, various tools are available to decrypt the information such as a cookie reader used with cookies.
Answer option D is incorrect. Download folder does not contain any e-mail message information.

QUESTION 30
Your company is planning to use an uninterruptible power supply (UPS) to avoid damage from power fluctuations. As a network administrator, you need to suggest an appropriate UPS solution suitable for specific resources or conditions. Match the type of UPS with the use and advantage:

 1-i,2-iv,3-ii,4-v

 1-v,2-iii,3-i,4-ii

 1-ii,2-iv,3-iii,4-i

 1-iii,2-iv,3-v,4-iv

QUESTION 31
Consider a scenario consisting of a tree network. The root Node N is connected to two man nodes N1 and N2. N1 is connected to N11 and N12. N2 is connected to N21 and N22. What will happen if any one of the main nodes fail?

 Failure of the main node affects all other child nodes at the same level irrespective of the main node.

 Does not cause any disturbance to the child nodes or its tranmission

 Failure of the main node will affect all related child nodes connected to the main node

 Affects the root node only

QUESTION 32
Which of the following layers is closest to the end user?

 Application layer

 Physical layer

 Session layer

 Presentation layer

Explanation

 Loading …

To help improve your performance, it is critical to understand the exam topics in detail. Thus, the content covered in the certification test that will be measured includes the following:

• Enterprise Virtual, Wireless, and Cloud Network Protection: 12%

  The next part of the test requires that you have the ability to explain network virtualization security, software-defined network security, network function virtualization, and operating system virtualization security. It also requires that you possess the skills in explaining security guidelines, best practices, and recommendations for containers, Kubernetes, and dockers, among others.

• Incident Prediction: 10%

  The last area covers the concepts of risk management and evaluates the students’ skills in managing risk through the risk management program and managing vulnerabilities through the vulnerability management program. It also covers their understanding of the cyber threat intelligence’s role in network defense and various threat intelligence types.

• Network Defense Management: 10%

  This topic measures the ability of the candidates to describe important terminologies associated with network attacks as well as the skills in explaining different samples of the network-level, host-level, and application-level attack methods. Besides that, you should also be able to explain different samples of wireless network-specific attack methods.

• Incident Response: 10%

  As for this section, it focuses on one’s skills in explaining the process of handling incidents & response as well as forensics investigation. You should also be able to describe BCP & DRP, different BC/DR standards, and BC/DR activities.

• Protection of Network Perimeter: 16%

  This subject area focuses on the individuals’ skills in explaining access control terminologies, models, principles, as well as cryptographic security methods. The applicants should also develop their competence in explaining the concepts of identity & access management.

• Application & Data Protection: 13%

  This module evaluates the learners’ skills in explaining & implementing Application Blacklisting & Whitelisting, application sandboxing, application patch management, and web application firewall. It also covers their understanding of data security and its importance. The interested candidates should also be able to describe the encryption of data at rest and at transit implementation.

Career Opportunities

The EC-Council 312-38 exam equips the professionals with the fundamental knowledge and skills in networking concepts. Without a doubt, earning the Certified Network Defender certification has a lucrative career outlook. Some of the positions that the certified individuals can consider include IT Administrators, Network Technicians, Data Analysts, Network Administrators, and Network Engineers, among others. The average remuneration for these titles is $94,000 per annum.

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