ISQI New 2026 CTFL_Syll_4.0 Sample Questions Reliable CTFL_Syll_4.0 Test Engine [Q97-Q116]

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ISQI New 2026 CTFL_Syll_4.0 Sample Questions Reliable CTFL_Syll_4.0 Test Engine [Q97-Q116]

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ISQI New 2026 CTFL_Syll_4.0 Sample Questions Reliable CTFL_Syll_4.0 Test Engine

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QUESTION 97
A tester created a decision table(DT) given below. While reviewing the DT some of the actions for the given conditions were found to be incorrect. The user is trying to view the profile, which of the given conditions has CORRECT action(s) listed?
ConditionC1C2C3C4
Is the user logged in?YesYesNoNo
Is the user authorized to view the profile?YesNoYesNo
Action
Display the user’s profileYesNoYesYes
Display an error messageYesYesNoNo

The decision table provides conditions and corresponding actions. For C2:
* The user is logged in (Yes).
* The user is not authorized to view the profile (No).
* The correct action should be not to display the profile (No) and to display an error message (Yes).
This matches the actions listed for C2, making it the correct condition with the proper actions.

QUESTION 98
Which of the following s the most correct statement about state testing techniques?

Static techniques can be used before all code is ready for execution

Static techniques find more detects then dynamic techniques.

Static techniques can be used by inexperienced users.

Static techniques are always cheaper than dynamic techniques.

State testing techniques are a type of dynamic testing techniques that are based on the behavior of the system under test for different input conditions and events. Dynamic testing techniques require the system to be executed with test cases, whereas static testing techniques do not. Static testing techniques can be applied before the code is ready for execution, such as reviews, inspections, walkthroughs, and static analysis. Static testing techniques can help find defects early in the development process, improve the quality of the code, and reduce the cost and effort of dynamic testing. Reference = ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL) v4.0 Syllabus, Chapter 4, Section 4.2.1, Page 281; ISTQB Glossary of Testing Terms v4.0, Page 292

QUESTION 99
Which of the following statements about the shift-left approach is true?

Shift-left in testing can be implemented only in Agile/DevOps frameworks, as it relies completely on automated testing activities performed within a continuous integration process

Performance testing performed during component testing, is a form of shift-left in testing that avoids planning and executing costly end-to-end testing at the system test level in a production-like environment

Shift-left in testing can be implemented in several ways to find functional defects early in the lifecycle, but it cannot be relied upon to find defects associated with non-functional characteristics

Continuous integration supports shift-left in testing as it can reduce the time between the introduction of a defect and its detection, thereby reducing the cost to fix it

This answer is correct because shift-left in testing is an approach that aims to perform testing activities as early as possible in the software development lifecycle, in order to find and fix defects faster and cheaper, and to improve the quality of the software product. Continuous integration is a practice that supports shift-left in testing, as it involves integrating and testing the software components frequently, usually several times a day, using automated tools and processes. Continuous integration can reduce the time between the introduction of a defect and its detection, thereby reducing the cost to fix it and the risk of accumulating defects that could affect the functionality or performance of the software product. Reference: ISTQB Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Section 3.1.1.3, Section 3.2.1.3

QUESTION 100
Which of the following statements about statement coverage is true?

Achieving 90% statement coverage ensures that 90% branch coverage is achieved

Achieving 100% statement coverage ensures that no variable within the code has been used without being initialized

Achieving 100% statement coverage ensures that 100% branch coverage is achieved

Achieving 80% statement coverage ensures that 80% of all executable statements within the code have been exercised

Statement coverage, also known as line coverage, is a metric used in white-box testing to measure the percentage of executable statements in the source code that have been executed by the test suite. Achieving a certain percentage of statement coverage means that an equivalent percentage of the executable statements in the code have been executed during testing.
For example, achieving 80% statement coverage indicates that 80% of the lines of code have been run through during the testing process. This metric helps in identifying parts of the code that have not been tested and may contain undetected defects.
It’s important to note that achieving high statement coverage does not necessarily guarantee that all possible paths or scenarios within the code are tested, nor does it ensure the detection of all types of defects. Other coverage metrics, such as branch coverage or condition coverage, might also be necessary to achieve a more thorough testing process.
References:
* The official ISTQB CTFL syllabus clearly defines statement coverage and explains that it ensures that the corresponding percentage of all executable statements have been tested.

QUESTION 101
Which ONE of the following statements BEST applies checklist-based testing?

Checklists should primarily consist of automated test cases to maximize efficiency.

Checklists should be used exclusively for functional testing, as they are unsuitable for non- functional testing.

Checklists should contain specific test conditions that can be individually and directly checked.

Checklists should contain general guidelines to ensure that all aspects of the software are covered.

Checklist items are often phrased in the form of a question. It should be possible to check each item separately and directly… Checklists can be created to support various test types, including functional and non-functional testing…

QUESTION 102
Test automation allows you to:

demonstrate the absence of defects

produce tests that are less subject to human errors

avoid performing exploratory testing

increase test process efficiency by facilitating management of defects

Explanation
Test automation allows you to produce tests that are less subject to human errors, as they can execute predefined test scripts or test cases with consistent inputs, outputs, and expected results. Test automation can also reduce the manual effort and time required to execute repetitive or tedious tests, such as regression tests, performance tests, or data-driven tests. Test automation does not demonstrate the absence of defects, as it can only verify the expected behavior of the system under test, not the unexpected or unknown behavior. Test automation does not avoid performing exploratory testing, as exploratory testing is a valuable technique to discover new information, risks, or defects that are not covered by automated tests. Test automation does not increase test process efficiency by facilitating management of defects, as defect management is a separate activity that involves reporting, tracking, analyzing, and resolving defects, which may or may not be related to automated tests. References: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL) v4.0 sources and documents:
ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Chapter 3.3.1, Test Automation1 ISTQB Glossary of Testing Terms v4.0, Test Automation2

QUESTION 103
For each of the test cases to be executed, the following table specifies the priority order and dependencies on other test cases

Which of the following test execution schedules is compatible with the logical dependencies and allows executing the test cases in priority order?

TC4, TC3, TC2, TC6, TC5. TC1

TC4, TC6, TC3, TC2, TC5, TC1

TC3, TC5, TC6, TC1, TC4, TC3

TC4, TC3, TC2, TC6, TC1, TC5

This answer is correct because it follows the logical dependencies and allows executing the test cases in priority order. TC4, TC3, and TC2 are executed first because they have the highest priority. TC6 is executed next because it has a logical dependency on TC2. TC1 is executed next because it has a logical dependency on TC5. Finally, TC5 is executed last because it has the lowest priority. References: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL) v4.0 documents

QUESTION 104
Which of the following issues cannot be identified by static analysis tools?

Very low MTBF (Mean Time Between failure)

Potentially endless loops

Referencing a variable with an undefined value

Security vulnerabilities

Static analysis tools are software tools that examine the source code of a program without executing it. They can detect various types of issues, such as syntax errors, coding standards violations, security vulnerabilities, and potential bugs. However, static analysis tools cannot identify issues that depend on the runtime behavior or performance of the program, such as very low MTBF (Mean Time Between failure). MTBF is a measure of the reliability of a system or component. It is calculated by dividing the total operating time by the number of failures. MTBF reflects how often a system or component fails during its expected lifetime. Static analysis tools cannot measure MTBF because they do not run the program or observe its failures. MTBF can only be estimated by dynamic testing, which involves executing the program under various conditions and collecting data on its failures. Therefore, very low MTBF is an issue that cannot be identified by static analysis tools.

QUESTION 105
Which one of the following statements IS NOT a valid objective of testing?

To build confidence in the level of quality of the test object.

To find all defects in a product, ensuring the product is defect free.

To find failures and defects

To evaluate work products such as requirements, user stories, design, and code.

Finding all defects in a product and ensuring it is defect-free is not a valid objective of testing.
Testing aims to find as many defects as possible, build confidence in the quality of the product, and evaluate work products. However, it is unrealistic to expect testing to find all defects, and declaring a product completely defect-free is impractical.

QUESTION 106
Which of the following statements about the shift-left approach is true?

Shift-left in testing can be implemented only in Agile/DevOps frameworks, as it relies completely on automated testing activities performed within a continuous integration process

Shift-left in testing can be implemented in several ways to find functional defects early in the lifecycle, but it cannot be relied upon to find defects associated with non-functional characteristics

Continuous integration supports shift-left in testing as it can reduce the time between the introduction of a defect and its detection, thereby reducing the cost to fix it

This answer is correct because shift-left in testing is an approach that aims to perform testing activities as early as possible in the software development lifecycle, in order to find and fix defects faster and cheaper, and to improve the quality of the software product. Continuous integration is a practice that supports shift-left in testing, as it involves integrating and testing the software components frequently, usually several times a day, using automated tools and processes. Continuous integration can reduce the time between the introduction of a defect and its detection, thereby reducing the cost to fix it and the risk of accumulating defects that could affect the functionality or performance of the software product. References: ISTQB Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Section 3.1.1.3, Section 3.2.1.3

QUESTION 107
Confirmation testing is performed after:

a defect is fixed and after other tests do not find any side-effect introduced in the software as a result of such fix

a failed test, and aims to run that test again to confirm that the same behavior still occurs and thus appears to be reproducible

the execution of an automated regression test suite to confirm the absence of false positives in the test results

a defect is fixed, and if such testing is successful then the regression tests that are relevant for such fix can be executed

Confirmation testing is performed after a defect is fixed, and if such testing is successful then the regression tests that are relevant for such fix can be executed. Confirmation testing, also known as re-testing, is the process of verifying that a defect has been resolved by running the test case that originally detected the defect. Confirmation testing is usually done before regression testing, which is the process of verifying that no new defects have been introduced in the software as a result of changes or fixes.

QUESTION 108
Which of the following work products cannot be examined by static analysis?

Test plans

Source code

Compiled code

Formal models

Static analysis examines work products without executing them, typically in their readable or structured form such as source code, documentation, or models. Compiled code is not suitable for static analysis because it lacks the necessary structure and readability for such analysis.

QUESTION 109
A system has a self-diagnostics module that starts executing after the system is reset. The diagnostics are running 12 different tests on the systems memory hardware. The following is one of the requirements set for the diagnostics module:
‘The time taking the diagnostics tests to execute shall be less than 2 seconds’ Which of the following is a failure related to the specified requirement?

The diagnostic tests fail to start after a system reset

The diagnostic tests take too much time to execute

The diagnostic tests that measure the speed of the memory, fail

The diagnostic tests fail due to incorrect implementation of the test code

A failure is an event in which a component or system does not perform a required function within specified limits1. A requirement is a condition or capability needed by a user to solve a problem or achieve an objective2. In this case, the requirement is that the diagnostics tests should execute in less than 2 seconds.
Therefore, any event that violates this requirement is a failure. The only option that clearly violates this requirement is B. The diagnostic tests take too much time to execute. If the diagnostic tests take more than 2 seconds to complete, then they do not meet the specified limit and thus fail. The other options are not necessarily failures related to the specified requirement. Option A. The diagnostic tests fail to start after a system reset is a failure, but not related to the time limit. It is related to the functionality of the self-diagnostics module. Option C. The diagnostic tests that measure the speed of the memory, fail is also a failure, but not related to the time limit. It is related to the accuracy of the memory tests. Option D. The diagnostic tests fail due to incorrect implementation of the test code is also a failure, but not related to the time limit. It is related to the quality of the test code. References = ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Requirements Engineering Fundamentals.

QUESTION 110
Which ONE of the following options BEST describes thethird test quadrant (Q3)?

This test quadrant contains smoke tests and non-functional tests (except usability tests). These tests are often automated.

This test quadrant is business-facing and criticizes the system. It contains exploratory testing, usability testing, and user acceptance testing.

This test quadrant contains functional tests, examples, user story tests, user experience prototypes, API testing, and simulations. These tests check the acceptance criteria and can be manual or automated.

This test quadrant is technology-facing and supports the team. These tests should be automated and included in the continuous integration (CI) process.

TheAgile Testing Quadrantsframework categorizes tests based on theirpurpose and audience:
* Quadrant 1 (Q1): Technology-facing tests (unit and component tests).
* Quadrant 2 (Q2): Business-facing tests supporting development (e.g., BDD tests).
* Quadrant 3 (Q3):Business-facing tests that critique the system (B).
* Includesusability testing, exploratory testing, and UATto ensure software meets user expectations.
* Quadrant 4 (Q4): Technology-facing tests that critique the system (e.g., performance, security testing).
Option B correctly defines Q3since it focuses onevaluating the user experience, exploring the system, and validating business expectations.

QUESTION 111
Which of the following is a role that is usually responsible for documenting the findings (e.g., action items, decisions, recommendations) made by the review team as part of a typical formal review?

Review leader

Facilitator

Recorder

Moderator

In a typical formal review process, the role usually responsible for documenting the findings, such as action items, decisions, and recommendations, made by the review team is the recorder. The recorder ensures that all discussions and conclusions are accurately captured and documented for future reference and follow-up.

QUESTION 112
The following decision table is used to assist a doctor in determining the drug therapy to prescribe for a patient (aged 6 to 65 years) diagnosed with acute sinusitis. The table consists of three Boolean conditions and six actions:

Based only on the given information, which of the following statements is true?

Column 7 represents an impossible situation and thus can be deleted

Columns 1 and 3 can be merged into a single column

Columns 2, 4. 6 and 8 can be merged into a single column

Columns 5 and 7 can be merged into a single column

In the given decision table, Column 7 represents the following conditions and actions:
* The patient is over 18 years old: True
* The patient is allergic to Penicillin: True
* The patient is taking anticoagulant therapy: True
When analyzing this column:
* If the patient is over 18 years old, allergic to Penicillin, and taking anticoagulant therapy, the decision table suggests consultation with a hematologist and prescribing half of the full recommended dosage for
10 days.
This column does not represent an impossible situation based on the conditions provided. However, upon deeper inspection and understanding of medical practices, it can be argued that such a specificcombination of conditions could be highly unlikely, making it appear unnecessary or an edge case that might be considered for deletion.
Given the constraints of the conditions and the requirements of the decision table, the provided answer needs to be verified against real-world medical guidelines to confirm if this scenario is indeed impossible or just

QUESTION 113
A company runs a pilot project for evaluation of a test automation tool. Which of the following is NOT a valid object of this pilot project?

Get familiar with the functionality and options of the tool

Check haw the tool fits to the existing test processes

Train all testers on using the tool

Decide upon standards for tool implementation

A pilot project is a small-scale experiment or trial that is conducted to evaluate the feasibility, effectiveness, and suitability of a test automation tool before implementing it on a larger scale.
The objectives of a pilot project may vary depending on the context and scope of the test automation initiative, but some common ones are:
To get familiar with the functionality and options of the tool To check how the tool fits to the existing test processes and environment To assess the benefits and challenges of using the tool To decide upon standards and guidelines for tool implementation and usage. To estimate the costs and resources required for tool deployment and maintenance.

QUESTION 114
Which ONE of the following work products TYPICALLY belongs to test execution?

Test logs that document the results of test execution.

Automated test scripts used for test execution.

A test plan that describes the test strategy and test objectives.

A list of test conditions prioritized during test analysis.

Test execution involves running test cases and documenting results. Test logs (A) provide evidence of executed tests, failures, and actual outcomes. Automated test scripts (B) are part of test implementation, test plans (C) belong to test planning, and test conditions (D) are identified during test analysis.
Reference:ISTQB CTFL v4.0 Syllabus, Section 1.4.1 – Test Execution

QUESTION 115
Which ONE of the following options BEST describes black-box test techniques?

Black-box testing techniques are based on experience with the test object without knowing the internal structure.

In black-box testing techniques, test cases are created based on the software’s implementation.

Black-box testing techniques are based on analyzing the test object’s specified and implied behavior without knowledge of its internal data structure.

Black-box testing techniques involve analyzing the specified behavior of the test object without knowledge of its internal structure.

Black-box testing techniques focus ontesting the functionality of the software without knowledge of its internal workings(D). They derive test cases fromspecifications, requirements, or expected behavior.
Option Adescribes exploratory testing,Bcontradicts the definition by focusing on implementation, andC incorrectly includes “implied behavior,” which is not a core characteristic of black-box testing.
Reference:ISTQB CTFL v4.0 Syllabus, Section 4.2 – Black-Box Testing Techniques

QUESTION 116
In which software development lifecycle does the tester participate in requirement reviews and test design in the initial phases, and in dynamic testing in later phases?

In sequential development models

In incremental development models

In iterative development models

In Agile software development

In sequential development models, such as the V-model, testing activities are planned early.
Testers participate in reviewing requirements and designing tests during the initial phases, while dynamic testing is performed later after the corresponding development activities have been completed.

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